Mock Exam 2 Questions
1. In general, which of the following treatments used for childhood brain tumors is associated with the poorest long-term neuro-cognitive outcomes?
c) whole brain radiation
d) posterior fossa surgical resection
2. Which of the following is false?
a) Anterograde amnesia is associated with hippocampal damage
b) Retrograde amnesia is associated with mammillary body or thalamic nuclei lesions
c) Severe retrograde amnesia is almost always accompanied by anterograde amnesia
d) The hippocampus is required for retrieval of remote memories
3. Which of the following is not characteristic of Down’s Syndrome?
a) Most prevalent type is trisomy 21
b) Sleep apnea is common
c) Females tend to have stronger cognitive profiles than males
d) Language skills are acquired at a faster rate relative to other motor or cognitive skills in Down’s Syndrome
4. You are a neuropsychologist who has been asked to assess Mr. Jones’ decision-making capacity. What are your ethical obligations in this situation?
a) You must obtain informed consent from Mr. Jones before proceeding with the assessment.
b) You must provide Mr. Jones with an explanation of the assessment, consider his preferences and best interest, and obtain his assent.
c) You do not require informed consent from Mr. Jones if he willingly complies with the assessment procedures, because consent is implied.
d) You should only conduct the assessment if Mr. Jones demonstrates an understanding of the purpose of the assessment, foreseeable risks, discomforts and benefits, and the limits of confidentiality.
5. A correlation coefficient of .80 means that the proportion of variance in Y that can be accounted for by knowing X is:
6. The vocal intonation that helps us understand the intended meaning of what people say is termed__________and is a __________ hemisphere specialization.
a) Prosody, left
b) Semantics, right
c) Syntax, right
d) Prosody, right
7. As you lower the reliability of a test, the Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) ____.
c) remains the same
d) can not be determined
8. “Does the test sample the domain that it is intended to measure?” refers to which type of validity?
a) Construct validity
b) Content validity
c) Criterion validity
d) Discriminant validity
9. The hit rate of a test is best when ________
a) the validity coefficient is low
b) the selection ratio is high
c) the base rate is moderate
d) the reliability coefficient is low
10. Folate supplementation during pregnancy is recommended to prevent:
a) Childhood Onset Epilepsy
b) Neural Tube Defects
c) Mitochondrial Disorders
d) Down's Syndrome
11. Which statement is true about the diagnosis of ADHD?
a) Stronger performance on digits backwards than digits forwards supports the diagnosis
b) A continuous performance test is the most sensitive means of detecting ADHD
c) ADHD is a clinically-based diagnosis
d) Impairment on Trails B but not A is a sign that is specific to ADHD
12. Acalculia of the Spatial Type is often associated with right hemisphere dysfunction and may include all of the following features except:
a) Misalignment of columns resulting in miscalculation
b) Deficits in simple calculations presented auditorally (e.g., 2 + 2 = 5)
c) Reversal errors (e.g., '12' for '21')
d) Inversion errors (e.g., '6' for '9')
13. The Geschwind-Galaburda Theory:
a) is based on the asymmetry of the planum temporale, which is particularly prominent in males
b) is based on the asymmetry of the planum temporale, with the left hemisphere being smaller than the right for most right-handed people
c) proposes that testosterone is implicated in greater development of the right hemisphere
d) would explain males’ strengths in spatial tasks, but does not account for the increased rate of autoimmune disorders in males
14. A patient who can copy a cross, cube, and upside down tree but can not identify what these drawings are of has?
b) Apperceptive agnosia
c) Associative agnosia
d) Optic aphasia
15. A test was used as a screening measure for ADHD and 90% of the children with ADHD scored in the abnormal range. This is the test’s ___________. 80% of the children without ADHD obtained scores in the normal range. This is the test’s ______.
a) sensitivity, specificity
b) specificity, sensitivity
c) positive predictive power, specificity
d) sensitivity, negative predictive power
16. Abnormalities in what areas of the brain have been proposed to correlate with impairment in autism?
a) Cerebellum, brain stem, and temporal lobes
b) Cerebellum, brain stem, and basal ganglia
c) Temporal lobes and basal ganglia
d) Basal ganglia and frontal lobes
17. A 52 y.o. hypertensive, diabetic man awakens unable to speak coherently and has right arm and face weakness but the leg is not affected. Exam shows dysarthria, Broca aphasia, right hemiparesis (face and arm) and hemianesthesia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Left putaminal hemorrhage
b) Left middle cerebral artery (MCA) occlusion
c) Left carotid occlusion
d) Left anterior cerebral artery occlusion
e) Left posterior cerebral artery occlusion
18. The use of deception in research
a) Should never be done
b) Can be done and is shared with participants only after the study
c) Can be done in all situations, provided that there is scientific value
d) Can be done provided that alternative procedures are not feasible
19. In determining suspicious effort, which should be ruled out?
a) Factitious Disorder
b) Somatoform Disorder
c) Psychotic Disorder
d) All of the above
20. What is the most reliable indicator of a developmental reading disorder?
a) Poor contextual reading
b) Difficulty acquiring rapid, context-free word-reading skill
c) Poor verbal working memory
d) VIQ – Achievement score discrepancy
21. All of the following have been reported as being associated with reading disorders except:
a) Reduced volumes in dominant hemisphere perisylvian areas
b) Symmetrical planum temporale
c) Cortical malformations in the frontal and temporal areas
d) Reduced insular and frontal lobe volumes
22. What feature of ADHD is typically not seen in NVLD?
d) Executive Dysfunction
23. A 25 year-old woman is referred for neuropsychological assessment by her general practitioner because of memory complaints. Information obtained during the clinical interview indicates that she has no memory of a 6-month period of time in 2001, after witnessing the assault of a close friend. Memory for recent events is intact. Based on this information alone, which of the following is highest on the list of differential diagnoses:
a) adjustment disorder
b) retrograde amnesia
c) conversion disorder
d) psychogenic amnesia
24. Test-retest reliability is most suitable for evaluating
a) Unstable traits such as speed of performance
b) Stable traits, such as aptitude
c) Subjective traits such as creativity
d) Can be used for all of the above
25. You are informed by the test manual that the test you are using has a reliability coefficient of .81. Therefore, _____% is due to measurement error
b) Square root of 19
26. The Striatum is part of the Basal Ganglia and includes which structures?
a) Caudate and Putamen
b) Caudate and Globus Pallidus
c) Globus Pallidus and Substantia Nigra
d) The Striatum includes all of these structures
27. Of the WAIS factor scores, _____ is least sensitive to neuropsychiatric disorders:
28. In comparing Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) patients to Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) patients, typically:
a) AD patients do better on confrontation naming tests
b) AD patients have day-to-day fluctuations in cognition but DLB patients do not
c) AD patients exhibit parkinsonism while DLB patients do not
d) depression and hallucinations are more common in DLB patients while delusions are more common in AD patients
29. Gender effects have been shown to be least evident on which of the following tests:
a) Test of Memory Malingering (TOMM)
b) smell identification test
c) finger tapping
30. With respect to the WAIS-III factor scores, practice effects are:
a) Largest for Processing Speed and Smallest for Verbal Comprehension
b) Largest for Working Memory and smallest for perceptual Organization
c) Largest for Verbal Comprehension and smallest for Processing Speed
d) Largest for Perceptual Organization and smallest for Working Memory
31. In which conditions are confabulations not found?
a) Anton’s syndrome
b) Gerstmann’s syndrome
d) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
32. Which of one of the following statements regarding Heschl’s gyrus is false:
a) Heschl’s gyrus is bilateral and located adjacent to the planum temporale.
b) In almost all individuals, the left-sided Heschl’s gyrus, like the left-sided planum temporale, has greater surface area than its right-sided counterpart.
c) Each Heschl’s gyrus reflects auditory stimulation predominantly from the contralateral ear.
d) Heschl’s gyrus appears to sort auditory stimulation for direction, pitch, loudness, and other acoustic properties rather than words for their linguistic properties.
33. In non-fluent aphasia, why is the arm typically more paretic than the leg?
a) The motor cortex for the arm is supplied by the middle cerebral artery (MCA), which is usually occluded. The motor cortex for the leg is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), which is usually spared.
b) The arm has larger cortical representation
c) The infarct occurs in the internal capsule
d) The motor cortex for the arm is supplied by the ACA, which is usually occluded.
e) The motor cortex for the leg is supplied by the MCA, which is usually spared.
34. In which disorder(s) is echolalia a symptom?
b) Isolation aphasia
c) Tourette’s syndrome
d) All of the above
35. Which of the following is not a feature of Asperger’s Disorder:
a) Impaired social interactions
b) Delayed language development
c) Restricted, repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests and activities.
d) Normal development of age-appropriate self-help and adaptive behavior
36. You are a neuropsychologist who is hired by an attorney (Ms. Smith) to perform a neuropsychological assessment of Mr. Patient to document cognitive deficits related to a brain injury following a motor vehicle accident. The attorney hired by the defendant’s insurance company (Ms. Jones) contacts you to demand that she be present during the evaluation. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
a) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Smith to observe the evaluation because Mr. Patient is his client, but not Ms. Jones
b) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment, but only if Mr. Patient provides his consent.
c) It is not acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment due to issues of test security and threats to the validity of the examination.
d) It is acceptable to allow Ms. Jones to observe the assessment, but not the clinical interview.
37. If forced to take only one test to your new position on a desert island with a need for neuropsychological assessment, one would be best served to take a test with high _____ in determining who should be flown to the mainland for more extensive neuropsychological evaluations in moderate base rate conditions.
a) face validity
b) construct validity
c) negative predictive power
e) positive predictive power
38. Conditions that may lead to worsening neurological deficit in acute stroke patients include:
c) Atrial fibrillation (AF)
d) All of the above
39. Clinical features of left posterior cerebral artery (PCA) occlusion include:
a) Right homonymous hemianopsia and hemianesthesia
b) Right hemiballismus
c) Vertigo and ataxia
d) Right hemiparesis
e) Alexia and agraphia
40. A 50 y.o. normotensive man has an episode of sudden loss of vision in the right eye. This persists for 15 minutes ad then rapidly resolves. He has normal neurological and opthalmological examination. The mechanism of this episode is most likely:
a) Demyelination of optic nerve
b) Artery-to-artery embolism involving carotid and ophthalmic arteries
c) Thrombosis in situ in carotid artery
d) Optic nerve compression
e) None of the above
41. A 50 y.o. man with atrial fibrillation suddenly becomes “confused.” He is alert and attentive. His speech is fluent but he has difficulty following commands. The following other neurological abnormalities might include:
c) Left lower quadrantanopia
e) No focal findings since patient has encephalopathy
42. Which of the following is not a symptom of carotid artery TIA?
b) Anterograde amnesia
c) Hemisensory loss
e) Transient aphasia
43. Which of the following does not occur in MCA strokes?
a) Upper extremity hemiparesis
d) Lower extremity hemiparesis
44. Trazodone is a __________ and may affect neuropsychological test results because it can make your patient ___________ .
a) Mood stabilizer, restless
b) Anxiolytic, drowsy
c) Antipsychotic, experience psychomotor slowing
d) Antidepressant, drowsy
45. A stroke in which vascular supply would cause dysfluent speech, anomia, intact comprehension and reading?
a) Left Internal Carotid Artery
b) Right Middle Cerebral Artery
c) Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
d) Left Middle Cerebral Artery
46. A lesion in the lower left optic radiation causes:
a) Right homonymous hemioanopsia with sparing of macular vision
b) Bitemporal hemianopsia
c) Right upper homonymous quadrantanopsia
d) Left lower homonymous quadrantanopsia
47. If you were a patient demonstrating a general lack of concern about your cognitive deficits, were over the age of 60, and had a clean neurological work-up other than borderline MMSE, the most likely diagnosis to rule out would be _________________, with a likelihood of around ___________.
a) Alzheimer’s disease, 80%
b) unable to determine with data presented
c) Pick’s dementia, 20%
d) Alzheimer’s disease, 60%
e) Cerebrovascular accident, 15%.
48. The parvocellular and magnocellular layers of the dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus
a) may represent different visual systems.
b) analyze the same kind of information from the visual field.
c) are connected to the nasal and temporal halves of the retina, respectively.
d) receive input from the contralateral and ipsilateral halves of the visual field, respectively.
49. Damage limited to the fusiform region of the right hemisphere would be expected to impair the recognition of ___________ .
a) movement of objects through space.
b) fruits and vegetables.
d) object location.
50. A difficulty in scanning the visual scene is ___________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
c) visual agnosia.
d) optic ataxia.
51. A difficulty in using visual guidance to reach for an object is ___________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
c) visual agnosia.
d) optic ataxia.
52. Imaging studies of individuals with autism have shown all of the following except:
a) delayed maturation of the frontal lobes
b) reduced activation of the amygdala during processing of facial emotion
c) enlargement of the lateral ventricles
d) overall reduced brain size
53. The inability to perceive more than one object in a visual scene is called ________ .
a) ocular apraxia.
c) visual agnosia.
54. In Alzheimer’s disease, which of the following receptors is most severely depleted?
a) Muscarinic acetylcholine
b) Nicotinic acetylcholine
c) Frontal dopamine
d) Nigrostriatal dopamine
55. Which of the dopamine tracks is associated with the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia?
56. Which of the dopamine tracks is associated with extrapyramidal motor disorders?
57. The primary treatment for a communicating hydrocephalus, or normal pressure hydrocephalus is ____________, which results in decreased _________________ in the ventricles. One way to distinguish NPH from a subcortical dementia is ________________.
a) Burr-hole suction, CSF, finger oscillation speed
b) Burr-hole suction with steroid treatment, choroid plexus production of CSF, falling
c) Shunting, blood, aphasia
d) shunting, CSF, incontinence
58. Treatments that use ABA designs to determine their efficacy are most vulnerable to the effects of __________ .
c) Measurement error
59. The most common sites of brain contusion in TBI, due to jagged bony prominences abutting brain tissue in the cranial vaults, are:
a) Calcarine fissure and orbitofrontal regions
b) Inferiolateral temporal regions
c) Parietoccipital cortex and dorsolateral frontal regions
d) Anterior temporal lobes and orbitofrontal regions
60. Of the following, which one is not a sign of cerebellar damage?
a) intention tremor
c) truncal ataxia
d) Hoover’s sign
61. When speaking of Tourette’s syndrome, which statement would not be completely accurate?
a) It is four times more common in boys
b) Abnormal MRI and EEG findings correlate highly w/ diagnosis
c) There is autosomal dominant inheritance w/ incomplete penetrance.
d) There is increased incidence of ADHD and OCD
62. Dementia in Parkinson’s Disease is least associated with:
b) Rapid progression of the illness
c) Being older
63. Which of the symptoms does not typically characterize Dementia with Lewy Bodies?
a) Extrapyramidal signs
b) Visual hallucinations and delusions
c) Pseudobulbar palsy
d) Memory and attentional deficits
64. Which of the following two vascular structures are the only two UNPAIRED vessels near or a part of the Circle of Willis?
a) posterior cerebellar artery and posterior communicating artery
b) anterior communicating artery and posterior communicating artery
c) basilar artery and anterior communicating artery
d) basilar artery and posterior communicating artery
65. With an understanding that dementia can happen late in the course of MS or possibly not at all, which MS features are often associated with cognitive impairment?
a) Physical impairments
c) Total lesion volume
d) All of the above
66. Symptoms of vertigo, vomiting, transient global amnesia, and nystagmus are indicative of:
a) Carotid Artery TIA’s
b) Basilar Artery TIA’s
c) CVA of the MCA
d) Lenticulostriate TIA’s
67. Abnormalities with saccades are a hallmark feature of which disease?
a) Parkinson’s Disease
b) Huntington’s Disease
d) Dandy-Walker Syndrome
68. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by thiamine deficiency usually associated with an alcoholic population. What is the classic triad of symptoms?
a) ataxia, confusional state, eye movement abnormalities
b) vertigo, retrograde amnesia, nystagmus
c) confabulation, retrograde amnesia, conduction aphasia
d) ataxia, vertigo, transient global amnesia
69. Which tremor is associated with parkinsonism?
70. Which seizure type typically is characterized by lip smacking, chewing or other automatic stereotyped movements, emotional changes (e.g., fear, sadness, or déjà vu feelings), as well as hallucinations of auditory, tactile, visual, or olfactory sensory experiences?
a) primary generalized seizure
b) secondary generalized seizure
c) typical simple absence seizures
d) partial (simple or complex) seizure
71. A researcher hypothesizes that students who perform a Milky Way hip flip the night before their Board Written Exam score higher on the exam than students who don’t. She obtains a sample of 40 students and assigns 20 to the “Milky Way hip flip ” group and 20 to the “no Milky Way hip flip” group. She concludes, on the basis of a statistical test, that her hypothesis was correct. In the population, however, there is no difference on the Board Written Exam between students who do and do not perform a Milky Way hip flip the night before they take the exam. What type of error has been made?
a) Type I Error
b) Type II Error
c) Sampling error
d) Standard error
72. A study is conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new anti-anxiety medication. The Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI) is used to measure anxiety levels. If the mean score of subjects who take the drug is compared to the population mean for anxious subjects on the BAI, the statistical test that would be used would be:
a) t-test for independent samples
b) t-test for correlated samples
c) t-test for single sample
d) one-way ANOVA
73. An experimenter is testing the hypothesis that there is no difference between treatment modalities in regards to the scores obtained by patients on a depression measure. His design calls for two groups— psychodynamic treatment versus a CBT treatment. He uses a t-test to analyze the data at time two as there were no differences between the groups at time 1. The results are: Group 1 BDI mean = 12; Group 2 mean = 8. The t-value exceeds the tabled critical value at the .01 level for a 2-tailed test. He should:
a) Accept the null and conclude the alternative hypothesis is false.
b) Reject the null and conclude the alternative hypothesis is supported.
c) Retain the null and conclude that the alternative hypothesis is supported.
d) Not make an interpretation, as the researcher should have used a one-tailed test.
74. In a study in which a one-way ANOVA is used, the null hypothesis would be that
a) Sample variances are equal.
b) Population variances are equal.
c) Sample means are equal.
d) Population means are equal.
75. A drawback of norm-referenced interpretation is that:
a) A person’s performance is compared to the performance of other examinees.
b) It does not permit comparisons of individual examinee’s scores on different tests.
c) It does not indicate where the examinee stands in relation to others of the same population.
d) It does not provide absolute standards of performance.
76. What is the location of pathology that contributes to the classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
a) basal forebrain and septal nuclei
b) ventral striatum and ventral pallidum
c) cingulate gyrus and temporal pole
d) mammilary bodies and medial diencephalic structures
77. The most likely primary progressive dementia to consider when a patient presents with primary symptoms of changes in comportment and language is
d) Fronto-Temporal Dementia
e) Primary Progressive Aphasia
78. When evaluating a child with a Nonverbal Learning Disability (NVLD), you would be most concerned that the child might also have a ____________ Disorder.
c) Disorder of Written Expression
d) Expressive Language
79. Sex-dependent penetrance (complete in males; incomplete in females); lack of asymmetry in the planum temporale; smaller neurons in the left medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) compared to the right MGN; and possible involvement of chromosome 6 and 15 are findings associated with what developmental disorder:
a) Asperger’s Disorder
b) Dyslexia or Reading Disorder
d) Rett's Disorder
80. Item difficulty index (p) is calculated by dividing the number who answered correctly by total number of sample. Items with moderate difficulty level are typically retained. What is the moderate difficulty value of p and why is this value preferred?
a) p=0.5 which helps maximize differentiation of subjects
b) p=0.35 which produces a more face valid test
c) p=0.75 which helps maximize differentiation of subjects
d) p=1.0 which produces normal distribution of scores
81. Which of the following intervention methods for severe memory disorders involves the prevention of errors during acquisition of information.
a) Self-Instruction Training
b) Massed practice
c) Metacognition Training
d) Errorless Learning
82. Risk factors associated with premature birth include all of the following except:
a) Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)
b) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
c) Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
d) Periventricular Leukomalacia (PVL)
83. Optic neuritis is epidemiologically and pathophysiologically related to
b) Multiple Sclerosis
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Meniere’s disease
84. Which of the following behavioral symptoms is not characteristic of diffuse axonal injury?
a) decreased mental efficiency
b) decreased complex reasoning ability
c) decreased receptive vocabulary
d) decreased ability to perform mental arithmetic
85. Nuchal rigidity is most likely a sign of which of the following
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Transtentorial herniation
c) Communicating hydrocephalus
d) Epidural hematoma
86. All the following are true except:
a) All valid tests are reliable.
b) The area under the curve (AUC) of an ROC curve reveals the overall accuracy of a test.
c) All reliable tests are valid.
d) The positive likelihood ratio reveals the likelihood a test-positive patient actually has the condition.
87. The cognitive profile of depressed patients is characterized by:
a) Slowed mental processing and mild attentional problems
b) Visual-spatial deficits
c) Mild word-finding difficulties and poor memory recognition
d) Lack of awareness of their cognitive difficulties
88. Infarcts and ischemic events are most common in:
a) Anterior cerebral artery
b) Posterior cerebral artery
c) Middle cerebral artery
d) Callosomarginal artery
89. Which of the following statements is false regarding Transient Global Amnesia (TGA)?
a) It involves an acute onset of retrograde and anterograde amnesia with no obvious cause
b) It is commonly accompanied by right hemiplegia
c) Following one episode of TGA, there is a low likelihood of subsequent episodes
d) During an episode of TGA, an individual typically asks the same question over and over.
90. Tourette’s Syndrome is most commonly associated with deficits in _________ .
b) auditory memory
91. The telencephalon includes:
a) The prosencephalon and the diencephalon
b) The thalamus and cerebral cortex
c) The entire forebrain
d) The cerebral cortex, subcortical white matter, and basal ganglia
92. Which statistical test is used in experimental designs that are most likely to assess causation?
a) Chi square
b) Pearson r
d) Discriminate Function Analysis
93. Alexia without agraphia can be associated with a __________, if ___________ is also affected
a) Right PCA infarct, angular gyrus
b) Left PCA infarct, splenium of corpus callosum
c) Left MCA infarct, angular gyrus
d) Left ACA infarct, splenium of corpus callosum
94. Which of the following statements about febrile seizures is false?
a) Febrile seizures occur in about 3-4% of children
b) One simple febrile seizure is not associated with increased risk for epilepsy
c) If one has a single febrile seizure, a second febrile seizure is likely to occur within one year.
d) Complex febrile seizures last longer than 15 minutes and may have focal features.
95. When both amygdale have been ablated, the result is usually
a) Emotional hyperactivity
b) Decreased oral tendencies
c) Loss of normal fear
96. Which of the following statements is false regarding delirium?
a) Delirium refers to a disturbance of consciousness that is accompanied by a change in cognition
b) Disorientation to time and place are not commonly associated with delirium.
c) Delirium is most common in children and the elderly.
d) Symptoms of delirium typically develop very rapidly and fluctuate throughout the day.
97. Papez’s circuit is a heuristic device to describe:
a) Disorders of speech
b) Disorders of emotion
c) Disorders of reading
d) Disorders of vision
98. What is ventriculomegaly?
a) Atypically developed ventricles associated with migrational disorders
b) Attenuation of cerebral white matter surrounding the ventricles
c) Compressed ventricles associated with mass lesions in the cranium
d) Ventricular enlargement with or without hydrocephalus
99. One of the reasons Parkinson's disease patients do not show symptoms of the disease until they have lost most of their dopamine-containing axons from the substantia nigra is that:
a) the remaining cells gradually begin to produce serotonin instead, which is much more potent than dopamine
b) all of the cell loss occurs in a very brief (less than one week) period of time
c) the receptors on the relevant postsynaptic membranes develop denervation supersensitivity.
d) the caudate nucleus gradually takes over the functions of the substantia nigra.
100. People born without a corpus callosum (i.e., agenesis of the corpus callosum)
a) cannot verbally describe an object in their left hand if they cannot see it
b) are exceptionally skilled at motor tasks involving their hands.
c) show a general impairment in language abilities.
d) are (in terms of behavior) virtually indistinguishable from people born with a corpus callosum.